Cytoplasm Bacterial Cell and Methane Molecule Biology Questions Please review the attachments as it contains the details of both multiple choice and essay questions for my assignment. Thanks essay question
1. http://lessons.pennfoster.com/pdf/573965.pdf#page=112
2. http://lessons.pennfoster.com/pdf/573965.pdf#page=188
3. http://lessons.pennfoster.com/pdf/573965.pdf#page=190
The Cell
1. _______ are modifications that make organisms suited to their way of life. A. Adaptations B.
Characteristics C. Behaviors D. Traits
2. Which of the following structures surrounds the cytoplasm in a bacterial cell? A. Cell wall B.
Nucleoid C. Ribosome D. Plasma membrane
3. The number of ATP produced during cellular respiration from one glucose molecule is A. 38.
B. 20. C. 32. D. 28.
4. Sunflowers belong to which of the following kingdoms? A. Protista B. Fungi C. Plantae D.
Animalia
5. If you immerse a living cell in a hypertonic solution, water will A. fluctuate in and out. B.
move into the cell. C. move out of the cell. D. remain constant.
6. Which is an example of potential rather than kinetic energy? A. A skier at the bottom of the
hill compared to the top of the hill B. A candle giving off light C. An apple made up of energyrich macromolecules D. A firefly using light flashes to attract a mate
7. Any energy transformation involves the loss of some energy as A. light. B. electric charge. C.
heat. D. motion.
8. Inside the chloroplasts, chlorophyll is found in the A. thylakoid membrane. B. thylakoid space.
C. mesophyll. D. stroma.
9. Saturated fatty acids have A. more fatty acid chains. B. no carboxyl groups. C. no double
bonds. D. bent fatty acid chains.
10. As an enzyme fits into a substrate at the active site, it undergoes a slight change to fit into the
substrate. This process is defined by a concept known as the A. facilitated diffusion process. B.
active enzyme inhibition scheme. C. feedback inhibition model. D. induced fit model.
11. The two major sets of reactions involved in photosynthesis are A. glycolysis and the citric
acid cycle. B. light reactions and the electron transport chain. C. light reactions and Calvin cycle
reactions. D. Calvin cycle reactions and citric acid cycles.
12. When a scientific experiment is carried out in a controlled setting, all variables are kept the
same except for the _______ variable. A. environmental B. experimental C. observational D.
control
13. You’ve decided to try to make your own wine by adding yeast to a sweet grape juice. After
allowing plenty of time for the yeast to grow, you find that although the sugar levels in the juice
are decreased, there’s no alcohol in the mixture. What could have been the reason fermentation
did not occur? A. The mixture needs less oxygen. Yeast produces alcohol only in the absence of
oxygen. B. The mixture needs more carbon dioxide. C. Less sugar is needed in the juice. High
sugar concentration causes cellular respiration to occur instead of fermentation. D. The mixture
needs more sugar. Yeast needs a lot of energy before they produce alcohol.
14. If three molecules of glucose went through glycolysis and into the citric acid cycle, how
many times would the preparatory reaction occur? A. 4 B. 12 C. 6 D. 3
15. _______ bonding holds a methane molecule together. A. Triple B. Covalent C. Valence D.
Ionic
16. An insect is able to walk across the surface of a pond without sinking because of the A.
process of evaporation. B. adhesion of the insect’s feet to the surface of the water. C. polarity of
the water molecules. D. surface tension of the water.
17. Which of the following is not a domain in the three domain system? A. Prokarya B. Archaea
C. Bacteria D. Eukarya
18. Which of the following are included in the binomial name given to an organism? A.
Kingdom, family B. Genus, species C. Order, genus D. Species, family
19. Which of the following is a true difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? A.
Eukaryotic cells are more ancient. B. Eukaryotic cells are less complex. C. Eukaryotic cells are
smaller. D. Eukaryotic cells have true nuclei. End of exam
20. Considering the ATP cycle, which of the following would have the most potential energy to
perform work for cell activities? A. H+ ions B. ADP C. ATP D. AMP
Genetics
1. Which one of the following strands of DNA is the complement strand to C-C-A-T-C-G? A.
G-G-T-A-G-C B. G-G-A-T-G-C C. A-A-C-G-A-T D. T-T-G-C-T-A
2. To clone adult animals, scientists typically begin with an A. enucleated liver cell. B.
enucleated egg. C. isolated sperm cell. D. enucleated sperm cell.
3. Which of these is happening when translation takes place? A. DNA is being replicated. B.
mRNA is still in the nucleus. C. rRNAs expose their anticodons. D. tRNAs are bringing amino
acids to the ribosomes.
4. Which of the following is an example of an X-linked recessive disorder? A. Color blindness
B. Methemoglobinemia C. Sickle cell disease D. Huntington disease
5. Crossing-over involves the exchange of genetic information between A. non sister chromatids.
B. Different genes. C. RNA strands. D. sex chromosomes.
6. tRNAs carrying the correct amino acid recognize the proper codons on the mRNA because A.
the codon of the mRNA binds the correct amino acid, and the tRNA stabilizes this interaction. B.
the anticodon of the tRNA hydrogen binds to the codon of the mRNA by complementary base
pairing. C. the amino acid binds to the anticodon of the mRNA and brings the correct tRNA with
it. D. the codon of the tRNA binds to the anticodon of the ribosome by complementary base
pairing.
7. Two organisms, each with the genotypes TtGg, mate. The chance of producing an offspring
that has the dominant phenotype for height (T) and the recessive phenotype for color (g) is A.
7/16. B. 3/16. C. 9/16. D. 11/16.
8. Which one of the following is a characteristic of cancer cells? A. They’re usually either nerve
cells or cardiac muscle cells. B. They result in uncontrolled growth. C. They can’t travel to other
parts of the body. D. They have a specialized structure and function.
9. Because of the area of study that it addresses, proteomics will play an important role in the
development of new A. drugs for the treatment of disease. B. transgenic food crops. C.
transgenic domesticated animals. D. surgical techniques.
10. What are all possible gametes that can be produced by an individual with the genotype
FFGg? A. FF B. FG, Fg, fG, fg C. Fg, fG D. Fg, FG
11. Transcription activators are different from transcription factors in that A. transcription
activators accelerate transcription, while transcription factors assist RNA polymerase binding. B.
transcription activators are required for RNA polymerase binding, while transcription factors
slow RNA polymerase binding. C. transcription factors prevent RNA polymerase binding, while
transcription activators assist RNA polymerase binding. D. transcription factors are required for
RNA polymerase binding, while transcription activators accelerate transcription.
12. Heterochromatin differs from euchromatin in that heterochromatin A. is transcriptionally
inactive. B. is the result of the unpacking of euchromatin. C. contains DNA with accessible
promoters. D. is transcriptionally active, whereas euchromatin is not.
13. What does it mean when we say that DNA replication is semiconservative? A. Each old
strand is used as a template for a new strand for the daughter cell. B. Nothing in the DNA is ever
changed. C. The daughter cell receives the new copy while the parent cell keeps the old DNA. D.
The daughter cell receives the old DNA while the parent cell gets a new copy.
14. _______ have the potential to develop and specialize into any cell type, which means they’re
_______. A. Embryonic stem cells; totipotent B. Adult stem cells; multipotent C. Adult stem
cells; totipotent D. Embryonic stem cells; multipotent
15. The S phase in the cell cycle is the A. synthesis phase, when DNA is replicated. B. split
phase, when the cell reproduces into two. C. sync phase, when the new cell synchronizes with
other cells. D. spindle phase, when chromatids are pulled apart.
16. If a cell has 46 chromosomes at the beginning of mitosis, then at the end of anaphase there
would be a total of A. 92 chromosomes. B. 46 chromatids. C. 46 chromosomes. D. 23
chromosomes.
17. Crossing-over involves the exchange of genetic information between A. non sister
chromatids. B. sex chromosomes. C. Different genes. D. RNA strands.
18. A recessive allele t is responsible for a condition called dystonia. A man who has this
condition marries a woman who doesn’t. One of their four children has the condition. What are
the possible genotypes of the man and the woman? (Hint: To help you answer this question,
create a Punnett square for each possibility.) A. Both parents are TT. B. The father is tt; the
mother is TT. C. The father is Tt; the mother is TT. D. The father is tt; the mother is Tt.
19. Introducing the gene for bovine growth hormone into the eggs of pigs is an example of a
process called A. recombinant DNA. B. stem cell therapy. End of exam C. genomics. D.
transgenics.
20. The possibility of Down syndrome increases as the mother’s age increases because A. her
DNA is damaged through an accumulation of replication errors. B. fertilization no longer occurs
correctly with older eggs. C. the possibility of nondisjunction increases. D. her DNA stops
checking for replication errors
Evolution and the Diversity of Life
1. Which statement about sponges is correct? A. Sponges have two germ layers, which give rise
to well-organized tissues. B. Sponges belong to the group of invertebrates known as cnidarians.
C. Most sponges have bilateral symmetry. D. Sponges are filter feeders.
2. Which of the following is an example of a group of prokaryotic organisms? A. Fungi B.
Archaea C. Protists D. Eukarya
3. Darwin argued that the beak size and shape of Galapagos finch species was related to their A.
time of reproduction. B. flight pattern. C. food source. D. body size.
4. Why don’t new biological macromolecules form abiotically from nonliving matter on the
Earth today? A. The special environmental conditions that are required don’t exist. B. There
aren’t enough of the various elements needed. C. There’s no need for biological macromolecules.
D. Biological macromolecules do arise abiotically but are quickly consumed by organisms.
5. In evolution, the study of vertebrate forelimbs is related to _______ evidence. A. fossil B.
biogeographical C. anatomical D. biochemical
6. Which of the following correctly shows a possible order of events resulting in allopatric
speciation? A. Geographic isolation, prezygotic reproductive isolation, genetic drift B.
Postzygotic reproductive isolation, geographic isolation, natural selection C. Natural selection,
prezygotic reproductive isolation, postzygotic reproductive isolation D. Geographic isolation,
natural selection, prezygotic reproductive isolation
7. What’s the function of a nematocyst? A. Digestion B. Sensory perception C. Locomotion D.
Prey capture
8. In the Hardy-Weinberg formula, q 2 represents the frequency of the A. homozygous
recessives. B. dominant allele. C. homozygous dominants. D. recessive allele.
9. According to the theory of evolution, birds’ feathers evolved from A. gill arches. B. fish fins.
C. reptile scales. D. gill slits.
10. During the life cycle of a plant, gametophyte is to n as sporophyte is to A. 2n2. B. 2n.
C. n → 2 D. n2.
11. Which of the following correctly reflects the division of the history of life on Earth, from
most inclusive to least inclusive? A. Epoch, Period, Era B. Period, Epoch, Era C. Era, Period,
Epoch D. Epoch, Era, Period
12. What do fossils of transitional links illustrate? A. Convergent evolution occurred in ancient
past. B. All transitional links are now extinct. C. Natural selection happened long ago just as it
does today. D. Shared characteristics of two distinct groups show that those groups are related.
13. Which of the following is not a characteristic of arthropods that has attributed to their
diversity and success? A. Highly developed nervous system B. Segmentation C. Jointed
appendages D. Endoskeleton
14. Which structures were required for the evolution of the ferns and gymnosperms? A.
Megaphylls and vascular tissue B. Megaphylls and seeds C. Flowers and vascular tissue D.
Microphylls and megaphylls
15. Darwin’s primary mission on the HMS Beagle was to A. describe as many different new
species as possible. B. observe natural selection in action. C. gather data on geologic processes
from around the world. D. expand the Navy’s knowledge of natural resources around the world.
16. Cell-like structures that may have resulted from macromolecular self-assembly are referred
to as A. protists. B. protocells. C. protoypes. D. prokaryotes.
17. Both insects and roundworms exhibit ______, whereas sponges, snails, and leeches do not.
A. calcium carbonate shells B. sensory perception C. sexual reproduction D. molting during
growth
18. Which scientist’s theories were closest to those of Darwin and his theory of evolution? A.
Watson B. Franklin C. Lamarck D. Culver
19. Which one of the following statements presents a condition required for the Hardy-Weinberg
principle to be in effect? A. Mutations are present. B. Random mating occurs. C. Gene flow is
present. D. Genetic drift occurs. End of exam
20. Using the Hardy-Weinberg equation, if p = 0.6, what is q? A. 0.6 B. 0 C. 0.4 D. 0.36
Structure and Function in Plants and Animals
1. You notice your friend’s MP3 player is turned up so loud you can make out the words to each
song— even though she is wearing earbuds. Your friend should turn down the volume to avoid
_______ deafness. A. conduction B. cytotoxic C. nerve D. cerebral
2. Which series best illustrates the pathway of blood flow in a closed circulatory system? A.
Heart, arteries, veins, capillaries B. Heart, veins, arteries, capillaries C. Heart, veins, capillaries,
arteries D. Heart, arteries, capillaries, veins
3. T lymphocytes mature in the A. bone marrow. B. thyroid gland. C. spleen. D. thymus.
4. Which one of the following is a method of treatment for HIV infections? A. Chemotherapy B.
Drug therapy C. Radiation treatment D. Blood transfusion
5. The ear functions because of A. statocysts. B. chemoreceptors. C. statoliths. D.
mechanoreceptors.
6. One job of the kidneys is to A. destroy old red blood cells. B. produce urea from amino groups
and ammonia. C. regulate the pH of the blood. D. increase the salt vs. water balance in the blood.
7. Plant reproduction by tissue culture differs from reproduction by meristem culture because A.
tissue culture propagation produces clonal plants, whereas meristem culture produces plants that
may be genetically different. B. plants produced by meristem culture are clones, whereas tissue
culture does not produce genetically identical plants. C. tissue culture requires cells from a
plant’s root system, whereas any cell of a plant may be used for meristem culture. D. tissue
culture produces plants that are virus-free, whereas plants produced by meristem culture may not
be virus-free.
8. Which of the following is correct regarding the blind spot? A. It’s an area of the retina where
rods and cones are concentrated. B. It’s an area of the retina where there are no rods or cones. C.
It’s caused by a nontransparent area on the lens. D. It’s caused by a nontransparent area on the
cornea.
9. In the process of embryonic development, which stage comes first? A. Gastrula B. Blastocyst
C. Blastocoel D. Morula
10. Which of the following would cause a plant to grow taller? A. Cytokinins B. Gibberellins C.
Auxin D. Abscisic Acid
11. In vitro fertilization takes place in A. the vagina. B. a surrogate mother. C. the uterus. D. a
laboratory.
12. What happens when the diaphragm contracts? A. The diaphragm rises. B. The volume of the
thoracic cavity decreases. C. The rib cage moves down. D. The volume of the thoracic cavity
increases.
13. What type of reproduction shuffles the genes? A. Binary fission B. Asexual C. Budding D.
Sexual
14. Unfertilized eggs of female Komodo dragons may develop to produce a young Komodo
dragon. This is an example of A. copulation. B. parturition. C. abiogenesis. D. parthenogenesis.
15. What’s the function of white blood cells? A. Gas exchange B. Transporting hormones C.
Causing illness D. Fighting infections
16. The female portion of the flower is the A. carpel. B. sepal. C. stamen. D. filament.
17. A patient’s pons has been affected by a rapidly growing tumor. Of the choices listed below,
which is the most likely result? A. Inability to regulate blood pressure B. Inability to experience
emotions C. Inability to understand speech D. Loss of the normal breathing rhythm
18. If a person has a genetic defect in the metabolic pathway that produces cytokines, then A.
helper T cells would take over the role of activating B cells. B. histamine won’t be produced by
mast cells. C. B cells wouldn’t be activated to respond when cells presenting antigens are present.
D. macrophages won’t be produced by the immune system.
19. Which sense requires the stimulation of chemoreceptors? A. Balance B. Smell C. Hearing D.
Vision End of exam
20. Jenna says that an example of homeostasis is when body temperature is maintained at about
37°C. Allen says homeostasis is when breathing rate increases along with exercise. Who is
correct? A. Neither is correct. B. Only Jenna is correct. C. Only Allen is correct. D. Both are
correct.
Purchase answer to see full
attachment